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Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) Certification Exam

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Cisco 100-105 Free Practice Questions

Q1. - (Topic 3) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three.) 

A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router. 

B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router. 

C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2. 

D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames. 

E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets. 

F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address. 

Answer: B,D,F 

Explanation: 

The router will forward the frames out the interface toward the destination – B is correct. Since the router will has the end station already in it’s MAC table as see by the “show arp” command, it will replace the destination MAC address to that of PC2 – D is correct. The router will then replace the source IP address to 172.16.40.1 – E is correct. 

Q2. - (Topic 3) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA? 

A. 192.168.1.1 

B. 192.168.1.65 

C. 192.168.1.66 

D. 192.168.1.129 

E. 10.1.1.1 

F. 10.1.1.2 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The default gateway will be the IP address of the router that it connects to, not the switch. 

Q3. - (Topic 7) 

Which statement about routing protocols is true? 

A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination. 

B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol. 

C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm. 

D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol. 

Answer:

Explanation: Link State Routing Protocols 

Link state protocols are also called shortest-path-first protocols. Link state routing protocols have a complete picture of the network topology. Hence they know more about the whole network than any distance vector protocol. Three separate tables are created on each link state routing enabled router. One table is used to hold details about directly connected neighbors, one is used to hold the topology of the entire internetwork and the last one is used to hold the actual routing table. Link state protocols send information about directly connected links to all the routers in the network. Examples of Link state routing protocols include OSPF - Open Shortest Path First and IS-IS - Intermediate System to Intermediate System. There are also routing protocols that are considered to be hybrid in the sense that they use aspects of both distance vector and link state protocols. EIGRP - Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol is one of those hybrid routing protocols. 

Q4. - (Topic 1) 

Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.) 

A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol. 

B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol. 

C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol. 

D. CDP is a network layer protocol. 

E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices. 

F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected. 

Answer: B,C,E 

Explanation: 

CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network. 

Q5. - (Topic 7) 

Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access the network? 

A. CSMA/CD 

B. IGMP 

C. port security 

D. split horizon 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Ethernet began as a local area network technology that provided a half-duplex shared channel for stations connected to coaxial cable segments linked with signal repeaters. In this appendix, we take a detailed look at the half-duplex shared-channel mode of operation, and at the CSMA/CD mechanism that makes it work. In the original half-duplex mode, the CSMA/CD protocol allows a set of stations to compete for access to a shared Ethernet channel in a fair and equitable manner. The protocol’s rules determine the behavior of Ethernet stations, including when they are allowed to transmit a frame onto a shared Ethernet channel, and what to do when a collision occurs. Today, virtually all devices are connected to Ethernet switch ports over full-duplex media, such as twisted-pair cables. On this type of connection, assuming that both devices can support the full-duplex mode of operation and that Auto-Negotiation (AN) is enabled, the AN protocol will automatically select the highest-performance mode of operation supported by the devices at each end of the link. That will result in full-duplex mode for the vast majority of Ethernet connections with modern interfaces that support full duplex and AN. 

Q6. - (Topic 1) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

Which option describes how SwitchA will handle the frame just received? 

A. It will drop the frame. 

B. It will forward the frame out of port Fa0/3 only. 

C. It will flood the frame out all ports. 

D. It will flood the frame out of all the ports except Fa0/3. 

Answer:

Q7. - (Topic 5) 

Select two options which are security Issues which need to be modified before RouterA is used? (Choose two.) 

A. unencrypted weak password is configured to protect privilege mode 

B. inappropriate wording in banner message 

C. the virtual terminal lines have a weak password configured 

D. virtual terminal lines have a password, but it will not be used 

E. configuration supports un-secure web server access 

Answer: B,D 

Q8. - (Topic 4) 

How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands? 

Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 

255.255.255.224 

Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME 

A. 7 

B. 8 

C. 9 

D. 10 

E. 24 

F. 32 

Answer:

Explanation: 

209.165.201.23 to 209.165.201.30 provides for 8 addresses. 

Q9. - (Topic 7) 

When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface'? 

A. virtual links 

B. passive-interface 

C. directed neighbors 

D. OSPF areas 

Answer:

Explanation: You can use the passive-interface command in order to control the advertisement of routing information. The command enables the suppression of routing updates over some interfaces while it allows updates to be exchanged normally over other interfaces. With most routing protocols, the passive-interface command restricts outgoing advertisements only. But, when used with Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), the effect is slightly different. This document demonstrates that use of the passive-interface command in EIGRP suppresses the exchange of hello packets between two routers, which results in the loss of their neighbor relationship. This stops not only routing updates from being advertised, but it also suppresses incoming routing updates. This document also discusses the configuration required in order to allow the suppression of outgoing routing updates, while it also allows incoming routing updates to be learned normally from the neighbor. 

Q10. - (Topic 3) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

The two routers have had their startup configurations cleared and have been restarted. At a minimum, what must the administrator do to enable CDP to exchange information between R1 and R2? 

A. Configure the router with the cdp enable command. 

B. Enter no shutdown commands on the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces. 

C. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on both the R1 and R2 fa0/1 interfaces. 

D. Configure IP addressing and no shutdown commands on either of the R1 or R2 fa0/1 interfaces. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

If the no shut down commands are not entered, then CDP can exchange information between the two routers. By default, all Cisco device interfaces and ports are shut down and need to be manually enabled. 

Q11. - (Topic 3) 

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two) 

A. It is locally significant. 

B. It is globally significant. 

C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database. 

D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router. 

E. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information. 

Answer: A,C 

Explanation: 

https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/6248 They are locally significant only, and have no bearing on the structure of any OSPF packet or LSA update. So you can have a separate process-id on every single router in your network if you so desire. 

Q12. - (Topic 3) 

Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages 

of using default routes? (Choose two) 

A. They establish routes that will never go down. 

B. They keep routing tables small. 

C. They require a great deal of CPU power. 

D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table 

E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks. 

Answer: B,D 

Explanation: 

Cisco administration 101: What you need to know about default routes Reference: 

http://www.techrepublic.com/article/cisco-administration-101-what-you-need-to-know-about-default-routes/ 

Q13. - (Topic 3) 

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers? 

A. Bandwidth 

B. Bandwidth and Delay 

C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU 

D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is Cost = 108/ Bandwidth 

Q14. - (Topic 5) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem? 

A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network. 

B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3. 

C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch. 

D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate. Different VLANs and different IP subnets need a router to route between them. 

Q15. - (Topic 7) 

Which statement about a router on a stick is true? 

A. Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches. 

B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same subnet. 

C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled. 

D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

https://www.freeccnaworkbook.com/workbooks/ccna/configuring-inter-vlan-routing-router-on-a-stick 

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