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Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0) Certification Exam

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Cisco 100-105 Free Practice Questions

Q1. - (Topic 3) 

Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.) 

A. router#show version 

B. router#show ip interface 

C. router#show protocols 

D. router#show controllers 

E. router#show running-config 

Answer: B,C 

Explanation: 

The outputs of “show protocols” and “show ip interface” are shown below: 

Global values:Internet Protocol routing is enabledSerial0/0 is up, line protocol is downInternet address is 10.1.1.1/30Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is downInternet address is 209.65.200.225/30Serial0/2 is up, line protocol is downSerial0/3 is up, line protocol is downNVI0 is up, line protocol is upInterface is unnumbered. Using address of NVI0 (0.0.0.0)Loopback0 is up, line protocol is upInternet address is 10.1.10.1/32Loopback1 is up, line protocol is upInternet address is 10.1.2.1/27Loopback6 is up, line protocol is up 

Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is downInternet address is 10.1.1.1/30Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255Address determined by non-volatile memoryMTU is 1500 bytesHelper address is not setDirected broadcast forwarding is disabledMulticast reserved groups joined: 224.0.0.5Outgoing access list is not setInbound access list is not setProxy ARP is enabledLocal Proxy ARP is disabledSecurity level is defaultSplit horizon is disabledICMP redirects are always sentICMP unreachables are always sentICMP mask replies are never sentIP fast switching is enabledIP fast switching on the same interface is enabledIP Flow switching is disabledIP CEF switching is disabledIP Feature Fast switching turbo vectorIP multicast fast switching is enabledIP multicast distributed fast switching is disabledIP route-cache flags are FastRouter Discovery is disabledIP output packet accounting is disabledIP access violation accounting is disabledTCP/IP header compression is disabledRTP/IP header compression is disabledPolicy routing is disabledNetwork address translation is enabled, interface in domain insideBGP Policy Mapping is disabledWCCP Redirect outbound is disabledWCCP Redirect inbound is disabledWCCP Redirect exclude is disabled 

Q2. - (Topic 2) 

What is the purpose of flow control? 

A. To ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgement is not received. 

B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device. 

C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender. 

D. To regulate the size of each segment. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Flow control is the management of data flow between computers or devices or between nodes in a network so that the data can be handled at an efficient pace. Too much data arriving before a device can handle it causes data overflow, meaning the data is either lost or must be retransmitted. For serial data transmission locally or in a network, the Xon/Xoff protocol can be used. For modem connections, either Xon/Xoff or CTS/RTS (Clear to Send/Ready to Send) commands can be used to control data flow. In a network, flow control can also be applied by refusing additional device connections until the flow of traffic has subsided. 

Reference: http://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/flow-control 

Q3. - (Topic 3) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance? 

A. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 

B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1 

C. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 

D. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The default AD for a static route is 1. To change this, configure a different value to be used as the AD at the very end of the “ip route” statement. 

Q4. - (Topic 3) 

The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command? 

A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router. 

B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router. 

C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2. 

D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 

192.168.100.160. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

With 160 it's actually network address of /27 so any address within the range of .160-.191 network will be sent to 192.168.10.2 

Q5. - (Topic 3) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 

255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1. Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA? 

A. 192.168.1.31 

B. 192.168.1.64 

C. 192.168.1.127 

D. 192.168.1.190 

E. 192.168.1.192 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Subnet mask 255.255.255.224 with CIDR of /27 which results in 32 hosts per. 

192.168.1.31 is the broadcast address for sunbet '0' 

192.168.1.64 is the network address for subnet '2' 

192.168.1.127 is the broadcast address for subnet '3' 

192.168.1.192 is the network address for subnet '6' 

Q6. - (Topic 1) 

Refer to the exhibit. 

HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point? 

A. abcd.1123.0045 

B. 192.168.7.17 

C. aabb.5555.2222 

D. 192.168.1.1 

E. abcd.2246.0035 

Answer:

Explanation: 

For packets destined to a host on another IP network, the destination MAC address will be the LAN interface of the router. Since the FTP server lies on a different network, the host will know to send the frame to its default gateway, which is Toronto. 

Q7. - (Topic 7) 

Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router? 

A. IEEE 802 1X 

B. HSRP 

C. port channel 

D. router on a stick 

Answer:

Q8. - (Topic 1) 

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.) 

A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode. 

B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node. 

C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode. 

D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting. 

E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode. 

Answer: A,B,E 

Explanation: 

Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet—typically 10BaseT—is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps—at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet. 

Q9. - (Topic 5) 

An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. 

What must be done to accomplish this? 

A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky. 

B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration. 

C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration. 

D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12.2SX/configuration/guide 

/port_sec.pdf 

One can configure MAC addresses to be sticky. These can be dynamically learned or manually configured, stored in the address table, and added to the running configuration. If these addresses are saved in the configuration file, the interface does not need to dynamically relearn them when the switch restarts, hence enabling security as desired. 

Q10. - (Topic 3) 

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table? 

A. the OSPF route 

B. the EIGRP route 

C. the RIPv2 route 

D. all three routes 

E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes 

Answer:

Explanation: 

When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of popular routing protocols are listed below: 

Q11. - (Topic 7) 

Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode? 

A. shutdown 

B. protect 

C. shutdown vlan 

D. restrict 

Answer:

Explanation: Shutdown—This mode is the default violation mode; when in this mode, the switch will automatically force the switchport into an error disabled (err-disable) state when a violation occurs. While in this state, the switchport forwards no traffic. The switchport can be brought out of this error disabled state by issuing the errdisable recovery cause CLI command or by disabling and reenabling the switchport. 

Shutdown VLAN—This mode mimics the behavior of the shutdown mode but limits the error disabled state the specific violating VLAN. 

Q12. - (Topic 1) 

Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems? 

A. TFTP 

B. DNS 

C. FTP 

D. SNMP 

E. RIP 

Answer:

Explanation: 

TCP is an example of a connection-oriented protocol. It requires a logical connection to be established between the two processes before data is exchanged. The connection must be maintained during the entire time that communication is taking place, then released afterwards. The process is much like a telephone call, where a virtual circuit is established--the caller must know the person's telephone number and the phone must be answered--before the message can be delivered. TCP/IP is also a connection-oriented transport with orderly release. With orderly release, any data remaining in the buffer is sent before the connection is terminated. The release is accomplished in a three-way handshake between client and server processes. The connection-oriented protocols in the OSI protocol suite, on the other hand, do not support orderly release. Applications perform any handshake necessary for ensuring orderly release. Examples of services that use connection-oriented transport services are telnet, rlogin, and ftp. 

Q13. - (Topic 1) 

How does a switch differ from a hub? 

A. A switch does not induce any latency into the frame transfer time. 

B. A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices. 

C. A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model. 

D. A switch decreases the number of broadcast domains. 

E. A switch decreases the number of collision domains. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Some of the features and functions of a switch include: 

A switch is essentially a fast, multi-port bridge, which can contain dozens of ports. 

Rather than creating two collision domains, each port creates its own collision domain. 

In a network of twenty nodes, twenty collision domains exist if each node is plugged into its 

own switch port. 

If an uplink port is included, one switch creates twenty-one single-node collision domains. 

A switch dynamically builds and maintains a Content-Addressable Memory (CAM) table, 

holding all of the necessary MAC information for each port. 

For a detailed description of how switches operate, and their key differences to hubs, see 

the reference link below. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/473/lan-switch-cisco.shtml 

Q14. - (Topic 3) 

Which IP address is a private address? 

A. 12.0.0.1 

B. 168.172.19.39 

C. 172.20.14.36 

D. 172.33.194.30 

E. 192.169.42.34 

Answer:

Q15. - (Topic 3) 

Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets? 

A. 1 

B. 2 

C. 4 

D. 8 

E. 252 

F. 254 

Answer:

Explanation: 

/30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet. 

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