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Online SY0-701 free questions and answers of New Version:
NEW QUESTION 1
A security engineer learns that a non-critical application was compromised. The most recent version of the application includes a malicious reverse proxy while the application is running. Which of the following should the engineer is to quickly contain the incident with the least amount of impact?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A reverse proxy backdoor is a malicious reverse proxy that can intercept and manipulate the traffic between the client and the web server3. This can allow an attacker to access sensitive data or execute commands on the web server.
One possible way to quickly contain the incident with the least amount of impact is to add the application hash to the organization’s blocklist. A blocklist is a list of applications or files that are not allowed to run on a system or network. By adding the application hash to the blocklist, the security engineer can prevent the malicious application from running and communicating with the reverse proxy backdoor.
NEW QUESTION 2
A major manufacturing company updated its internal infrastructure and just started to allow OAuth application to access corporate data Data leakage is being reported Which of following most likely caused the issue?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Privilege creep is the gradual accumulation of access rights beyond what an individual needs to do his or her job. In information technology, a privilege is an identified right that a particular end user has to a particular system resource, such as a file folder or virtual machine. Privilege creep often occurs when an employee changes job responsibilities within an organization and is granted new privileges. While employees may need to retain their former privileges during a period of transition, those privileges are rarely revoked and result in an unnecessary accumulation of access privileges. Privilege creep creates a security risk by increasing the attack surface and exposing sensitive data or systems to unauthorized or malicious users.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/privilege-creep
NEW QUESTION 3
An organization is outlining data stewardship roles and responsibilities. Which of the following employee roles would determine the purpose of data and how to process it?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A data controller is an employee role that would determine the purpose of data and how to process it. A data controller is a person or entity that decides why and how personal data is collected, used, stored, shared, or deleted. A data controller has the responsibility to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and to ensure the rights and privacy of data subjects.
References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-data-controller
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd
NEW QUESTION 4
A security administrator has discovered that workstations on the LAN are becoming infected with malware.
The cause of the infections appears to be users receiving phishing emails that are bypassing the current
email-filtering technology. As a result, users are being tricked into clicking on malicious URLs, as no internal controls currently exist in the environment to evaluate their safety. Which of the following would be BEST to implement to address the issue?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Awareness training should be implemented to educate users on the risks of clicking on malicious URLs. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 9
NEW QUESTION 5
A security administrator wants to implement a program that tests a user's ability to recognize attacks over the organization's email system Which of the following would be BEST suited for this task?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A phishing campaign is a simulated attack that tests a user's ability to recognize attacks over the organization's email system. Phishing campaigns can be used to train users on how to identify and report suspicious emails.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, pp. 85-86.
NEW QUESTION 6
A security administrator is seeking a solution to prevent unauthorized access to the internal network. Which of the following security solutions should the administrator choose?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A VPN (virtual private network) is a secure tunnel used to encrypt traffic and prevent unauthorized access to the internal network. It is a secure way to extend a private network across public networks, such as the Internet, and can be used to allow remote users to securely access resources on the internal network. Additionally, a VPN can be used to prevent malicious traffic from entering the internal network.
NEW QUESTION 7
A third party asked a user to share a public key for secure communication. Which of the following file formats should the user choose to share the key?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A user should choose the .cer file format to share a public key for secure communication. A .cer file is a public key certificate that can be shared with third parties to enable secure communication.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 6: Cryptography, pp. 301-302.
A public key is a cryptographic key that can be used to encrypt or verify data. A public key file is a file that contains one or more public keys in a specific format.
There are different formats for public key files, depending on the application and the algorithm used. Some of the common formats are:
.pfx: This is a file format that stores a certificate and its private and public keys. It is also known as PKCS#12 or Personal Information Exchange. It is used by some applications such as Microsoft Internet Explorer and Outlook to import and export certificates and keys.1 .csr: This is a file format that stores a Certificate Signing Request, which is a message sent to a Certificate Authority (CA) to request a digital certificate. It contains the public key and some information about the identity of the requester. It is also known as PKCS#10 or Certification Request Syntax.2
.pvk: This is a file format that stores a private key for Microsoft Authenticode code signing. It is used with a .spc file that contains the certificate and public key.3 .cer: This is a file format that stores a certificate, which is a document that binds a public key to an identity. It is also known as DER or Distinguished Encoding Rules. It is used by some applications such as OpenSSL and Java to read and write certificates.4
NEW QUESTION 8
A Chief Information Officer receives an email stating a database will be encrypted within 24 hours unless a payment of $20,000 is credited to the account mentioned In the email. This BEST describes a scenario related to:
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario of receiving an email stating a database will be encrypted unless a payment is made is an example of spear phishing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 2: Threats, Attacks, and Vulnerabilities, Social Engineering
NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the MOST likely vectors for the unauthorized inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company’s final software releases? (Select TWO.)
Answer: DE
Explanation:
The most likely vectors for the unauthorized inclusion of vulnerable code in a software company's final software releases are included third-party libraries and vendors/supply chain. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 8: Application, Data, and Host Security, Supply Chain and Software Development Life Cycle
NEW QUESTION 10
A company installed several crosscut shredders as part of increased information security practices targeting data leakage risks. Which of the following will this practice reduce?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Crosscut shredders are used to destroy paper documents and reduce the risk of data leakage through dumpster diving. Dumpster diving is a method of retrieving sensitive information from paper waste by searching through discarded documents.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2
NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following describes software on network hardware that needs to be updated on a rou-tine basis to help address possible vulnerabilities?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Firmware is software that allows your computer to communicate with hardware devices, such as network routers, switches, or firewalls. Firmware updates can fix bugs, improve performance, and enhance security features. Without firmware updates, the devices you connect to your network might not work properly or
might be vulnerable to attacks1. You can have Windows automatically download recommended drivers and firmware updates for your hardware devices1, or you can use a network monitoring software to keep track of the firmware status of your devices2. You should also follow the best practices for keeping devices and software up to date, such as enforcing automatic updates, monitoring update status, and testing updates before deploying them
NEW QUESTION 12
Which of the following would be BEST for a technician to review to determine the total risk an organization can bear when assessing a "cloud-first" adoption strategy?
Answer: B
Explanation:
To determine the total risk an organization can bear, a technician should review the organization's risk tolerance, which is the amount of risk the organization is willing to accept. This information will help determine the organization's "cloud-first" adoption strategy. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)
NEW QUESTION 13
A network penetration tester has successfully gained access to a target machine. Which of the following should the penetration tester do next?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Establishing persistence for future use is the next step that a network penetration tester should do after gaining access to a target machine. Persistence means creating a backdoor or a covert channel that allows the penetration tester to maintain access to the target machine even if the initial exploit is patched or the connection is lost. Persistence can be achieved by installing malware, creating hidden user accounts, modifying registry keys, or setting up remote access tools. Establishing persistence can help the penetration tester to perform further reconnaissance, move laterally to other machines, or exfiltrate data from the target network.
NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following allow access to remote computing resources, a operating system. and centrdized configuration and data
Answer: C
Explanation:
Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a remote server to provide access to computing resources, an operating system, and centralized configuration and data. Thin clients can reduce the cost, complexity, and security risks of managing multiple devices.
NEW QUESTION 15
A security analyst receives alerts about an internal system sending a large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours. Which of the following is most likely occurring?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data is being exfiltrated when an internal system is sending a large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a system or network to an external destination or actor. Data exfiltration can be performed by malicious insiders or external attackers who have compromised the system or network. DNS queries are requests for resolving domain names to IP addresses. DNS queries can be used as a covert channel for data exfiltration by encoding data in the domain names or subdomains and sending them to a malicious DNS server that can decode and collect the data. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-exfiltration
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd
NEW QUESTION 16
Which of the following should customers who are involved with Ul developer agreements be concerned with when considering the use of these products on highly sensitive projects?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Customers who are involved with Ul developer agreements should be concerned with weak configurations when considering the use of these products on highly sensitive projects. Weak configurations can lead to security vulnerabilities, which can be exploited by malicious actors. It is important to ensure that all configurations are secure and up-to-date in order to protect sensitive data. Source: UL
NEW QUESTION 17
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