Introducing The New!
Surepassexam Collection
Get Unlimited Access to all
Surepassexam's PREMIUM files
Your success in CompTIA SY0-701 is our sole target and we develop all our SY0-701 braindumps in a way that facilitates the attainment of this target. Not only is our SY0-701 study material the best you can find, it is also the most detailed and the most updated. SY0-701 Practice Exams for CompTIA SY0-701 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy.
Online CompTIA SY0-701 free dumps demo Below:
NEW QUESTION 1
A security analyst is reviewing the vulnerability scan report for a web server following an incident. The vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers. Security patches are essential for maintaining the security and functionality of systems and applications.
If the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability, it means that the patch was either not applied or was uninstalled at some point. A possible reason for uninstalling a security patch could be user impact, such as performance degradation, compatibility issues, or functionality loss.
The other options are not correct because:
B. An adversary altered the vulnerability scan reports. This could be a possibility, but it is less likely than option A. An adversary would need to have access to the vulnerability scan reports and be able to modify them without being detected. Moreover, altering the reports would not prevent the patch from being applied or uninstalled.
C. A zero-day vulnerability was used to exploit the web server. This is not correct because a
zero-day vulnerability is a vulnerability that is unknown to the public or the vendor, and therefore has no patch available. The question states that a patch is available for the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server. D. The scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability. This is not correct because a false negative is when a scan fails to detect a vulnerability that is present. The question states that the vulnerability is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, which means that it was detected by previous scans.
According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:
“A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers.”
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.getastra.com/blog/security-audit/vulnerability-scanning-report/
NEW QUESTION 2
A user is trying to upload a tax document, which the corporate finance department requested, but a security program IS prohibiting the upload A security analyst determines the file contains Pll, Which of
the following steps can the analyst take to correct this issue?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies are used to identify and protect sensitive data, and often include a list of exceptions that allow certain types of data to be uploaded or shared. By modifying the exception list on the DLP, the security analyst can allow the tax document to be uploaded without compromising the security of the system. (Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Textbook, page 479-480)
NEW QUESTION 3
A network administrator needs to determine Ihe sequence of a server farm's logs. Which of the following should the administrator consider? (Select TWO).
Answer: DF
Explanation:
A server farm’s logs are records of events that occur on a group of servers that provide the same service or function. Logs can contain information such as date, time, source, destination, message, error code, and severity level. Logs can help administrators monitor the performance, security, and availability of the servers and troubleshoot any issues.
To determine the sequence of a server farm’s logs, the administrator should consider the following factors:
Time stamps: Time stamps are indicators of when an event occurred on a server. Time stamps can help administrators sort and correlate events across different servers based on chronological order. However, time stamps alone may not be sufficient to determine the sequence of events if the servers have different time zones or clock settings. Time offset: Time offset is the difference between the local time of a server and a reference time, such
as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) or Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Time offset can help administrators adjust and synchronize the time stamps of different servers to a common reference time and eliminate any discrepancies caused by time zones or clock settings.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/server-manager/view-event-logs
NEW QUESTION 4
A security analyst reviews a company’s authentication logs and notices multiple authentication failures. The authentication failures are from different usernames that share the same source IP address. Which of the password attacks is MOST likely happening?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Detailed
Password spraying is an attack where an attacker tries a small number of commonly used passwords against a large number of usernames. The goal of password spraying is to avoid detection by avoiding too many failed login attempts for any one user account. The fact that different usernames are being attacked from the same IP address is a strong indication that a password spraying attack is underway.
NEW QUESTION 5
A financial institution would like to store its customer data in the cloud but still allow the data to be accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution Is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds. Which of the following cryptographic techniques would best meet the requirement?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Homomorphic encryption is a cryptographic technique that allows data to be stored, accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Homomorphic encryption enables computations to be performed on ciphertexts, generating an encrypted result that, when decrypted, matches the result of the operations as if they had been performed on the plaintext. Homomorphic encryption can prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity, as the data remains encrypted at all times. Homomorphic encryption is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds, as it trades off performance for security and privacy. References: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/symmetric-and-asymmetric-crypt
NEW QUESTION 6
An account was disabled atter several failed and successful login connections were made from various parts of the Word at various times. A security analysts investigating the issue. Which of the following account policies most likely triggered the action to disable the
Answer: D
Explanation:
Impossible travel time is a policy that detects and blocks login attempts from locations that are geographically impossible to reach from the previous login location within a certain time frame. For example, if a user logs in from New York and then tries to log in from Tokyo within an hour, the policy would flag this as impossible travel time and disable the account. This policy helps prevent unauthorized access from compromised credentials or attackers using proxy servers. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives
page 6, Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, Objective 1.2: Compare and contrast different types of social engineering techniques 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, Domain 3.0:
Implementation, Objective 3.4: Implement identity and account management controls 3
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/howto-sign-in-risk-policy#impossi
NEW QUESTION 7
A security researcher has alerted an organization that its sensitive user data was found for sale on a website. Which of the following should the organization use to inform the affected parties?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The organization should use a communications plan to inform the affected parties. A communications plan is a document that outlines how an organization will communicate with internal and external stakeholders during a crisis or incident. It should include details such as who will be responsible for communicating with different stakeholders, what channels will be used to communicate, and what messages will be communicated.
An incident response plan is a document that outlines the steps an organization will take to respond to a security incident or data breach. A business continuity plan is a document that outlines how an organization will continue to operate during and after a disruption. A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines how an organization will recover its IT infrastructure and data after a disaster.
NEW QUESTION 8
The compliance team requires an annual recertification of privileged and non-privileged user access. However, multiple users who left the company six months ago still have access. Which of the following would have prevented this compliance violation?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Account audits are periodic reviews of user accounts to ensure that they are being used appropriately and that access is being granted and revoked in accordance with the organization's policies and procedures. If the compliance team had been conducting regular account audits, they would have identified the users who left the company six months ago and ensured that their access was revoked in a timely manner. This would have prevented the compliance violation caused by these users still having access to the company's systems.
To prevent this compliance violation, the company should implement account audits. An account audit is a regular review of all user accounts to ensure that they are being used properly and that they are in compliance with the company's security policies. By conducting regular account audits, the company can identify inactive or unused accounts and remove access for those users. This will help to prevent compliance violations and ensure that only authorized users have access to the company's systems and data.
NEW QUESTION 9
A security analyst was asked to evaluate a potential attack that occurred on a publicly accessible section of the company's website. The malicious actor posted an entry in an attempt to trick users into clicking the following:
Which of the following was most likely observed?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting is a type of web application attack that involves injecting malicious code or scripts into a trusted website or application. The malicious code or script can execute in the browser of the victim who visits the website or application, and can perform actions such as stealing cookies, redirecting to malicious sites, displaying fake content, or compromising the system. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cross-site-scripting
https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd
NEW QUESTION 10
A company completed a vulnerability scan. The scan found malware on several systems that were running older versions of Windows. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the malware infection?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The reason for this is that older versions of Windows may have known vulnerabilities that have been patched in more recent versions. If a company is not regularly patching their systems, they are leaving those vulnerabilities open to exploit, which can allow malware to infect the systems.
It is important to regularly update and patch systems to address known vulnerabilities and protect against potential malware infections. This is an important aspect of proper security management.
Here is a reference to the CompTIA Security+ certification guide which states that "Properly configuring and
maintaining software, including patch management, is critical to protecting systems and data."
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: SY0-601 by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom https://www.wiley.com/en-us/CompTIA+Security++Study+Guide:+SY0-601-p-9781119515968
NEW QUESTION 11
A user reports constant lag and performance issues with the wireless network when working at a local coffee shop A security analyst walks the user through an installation of Wireshark and gets a five-minute pcap to analyze. The analyst observes the following output:
Which of the following attacks does the analyst most likely see in this packet capture?
Answer: B
Explanation:
An evil twin is a type of wireless network attack that involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. It can trick users into connecting to the rogue access point instead of the real one, and then intercept or modify their traffic, steal their credentials, launch phishing pages, etc. In this packet capture, the analyst can see that there are two access points with the same SSID (CoffeeShop) but different MAC addresses (00:0c:41:82:9c:4f and 00:0c:41:82:9c:4e). This indicates that one of them is an evil twin that is trying to impersonate the other one.
NEW QUESTION 12
An engineer wants to inspect traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment Which of the following solutions should the engineer implement? (Select two).
Answer: BC
Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is a solution that inspects traffic to a cluster of web servers in a cloud environment and protects them from common web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and denial-of-service1. A WAF can be deployed as a cloud service or as a virtual appliance in front of the web servers. A load balancer is a solution that distributes traffic among multiple web servers in a cloud environment and improves their performance, availability, and scalability2. A load balancer can also perform health checks on the web servers and route traffic only to the healthy ones. The other options are not relevant to this scenario. A CASB is a cloud access security broker, which is a solution that monitors and controls the use of cloud services by an organization’s users3. A VPN is a virtual private network, which is a solution that creates a secure and encrypted connection between two networks or devices over the internet. TLS is Transport Layer Security, which is a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for data transmitted over a network. DAST is dynamic application security testing, which is a method of testing web applications for vulnerabilities by simulating attacks on them.
References: 1: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/what-is-a-web-application-firewall-waf/ 2:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/load-balancing/ 3: https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/cloud-access-security-broker-casb/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/vpn-virtual-private-network/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/transport-layer-security-tls/ : https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/dynamic-application-security-testing-dast/ : https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cloud-adoption-framework/ready/azure-best-practices/plan-for-traffic-ins
: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/private-link/inspect-traffic-with-azure-firewall :
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/example-scenario/gateway/application-gateway-before-azur
NEW QUESTION 13
A company wants to enable BYOD for checking email and reviewing documents. Many of the documents contain sensitive organizational information. Which of the following should be deployed first before allowing the use of personal devices to access company data?
Answer: A
Explanation:
MDM stands for Mobile Device Management, which is a solution that can be used to manage and secure personal devices that access company data. MDM can enforce policies and rules, such as password protection, encryption, remote wipe, device lock, application control, and more. MDM can help a company enable BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) while protecting sensitive organizational information.
NEW QUESTION 14
A security administrator is using UDP port 514 to send a syslog through an unsecure network to the SIEM server. Which of the following is the best way for the administrator to improve the process?
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSL/TLS encryption is a method of securing the syslog traffic by using cryptographic protocols to encrypt and authenticate the data. SSL/TLS encryption can prevent eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing of the syslog messages. TCP 6514 is the standard port for syslog over TLS, as defined by RFC 5425. Using this port can ensure compatibility and interoperability with other syslog implementations that support TLS.
NEW QUESTION 15
A company was compromised, and a security analyst discovered the attacker was able to get access to a service account. The following logs were discovered during the investigation:
Which of the following MOST likely would have prevented the attacker from learning the service account name?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Input sanitization can help prevent attackers from learning the service account name by removing potentially harmful characters from user input, reducing the likelihood of successful injection attacks. References:
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 2.2: Given a scenario, implement secure coding techniques. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 72-73
NEW QUESTION 16
A security analyst is reviewing the output of a web server log and notices a particular account is attempting to transfer large amounts of money:
GET
http://yourbank.com/transfer.do?acctnum=08764 6959
&amount=500000 HTTP/1.1
GET
http://yourbank.com/transfer.do?acctnum=087646958
&amount=5000000 HTTP/1.1
GET
http://yourbank.com/transfer.do?acctnum=-087646958
&amount=1000000 HTTP/1.1
GET
http://yourbank.com/transfer.do?acctnum=087646953
&amount=500 HTTP/1.1
Which of the following types of attacks is most likely being conducted?
Answer: B
Explanation:
CSRF stands for Cross-Site Request Forgery, which is an attack that forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they are currently authenticated1. In this case, the attacker may have tricked the user into clicking a malicious link or visiting a malicious website that sends forged requests to the web server of the bank, using the user’s session cookie or other credentials. The web server then performs the money transfer requests as if they were initiated by the user, without verifying the origin or validity of the requests.
* A. SQLi. This is not the correct answer, because SQLi stands for SQL Injection, which is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database layer, where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution2. The output of the web server log does not show any SQL statements or commands.
* B. CSRF. This is the correct answer, because CSRF is an attack that exploits the trust a web server has in a user’s browser, where malicious requests are sent to the web server using the user’s credentials1. The output of the web server log shows multiple GET requests with different account numbers and amounts, which may indicate a CSRF attack.
* C. Spear phishing. This is not the correct answer, because spear phishing is an attack that targets a specific individual or organization with a personalized email or message that contains a malicious link or attachment3. The output of the web server log does not show any email or message content or headers.
* D. API. This is not the correct answer, because API stands for Application Programming Interface, which is a set of rules and specifications that allow software components to communicate and exchange data. API is not an attack method, but rather a way of designing and developing software applications.
NEW QUESTION 17
......
100% Valid and Newest Version SY0-701 Questions & Answers shared by Downloadfreepdf.net, Get Full Dumps HERE: https://www.downloadfreepdf.net/SY0-701-pdf-download.html (New 0 Q&As)